1. Questions on Verbal Plenary Preservation
Can you show me one verse in the Bible that explicitly teaches that God would perfectly preserve His Word in one language, one manuscript tradition, or one edition of the Bible (such as the TR or the KJV)?
If the KJV or TR is the “perfect” text, does that mean all Christians before 1611 (or before Erasmus’s TR, 1516) did not have a perfect Bible?
How do you reconcile your belief in VPP, which claims every word is preserved perfectly, with the existence of thousands of manuscript variants, even in the TR (Textus Receptus) and Majority Text traditions?
If VPP is true, which specific manuscript or manuscript family represents this perfectly preserved text, and why?
Does VPP apply to the original languages only, or does it extend to translations? If so, which translations are inspired, and how do we know?
2. Questions on the Textus Receptus (TR)
The earliest forms of the TR were based on a handful of late manuscripts from the Byzantine tradition, some of which were handwritten in the 12th century or later. How can a text based on such late and few manuscripts be superior to the thousands of older manuscripts (like Codex Sinaiticus and Vaticanus) that textual critics use today?
Can you name the specific Greek manuscript(s) that constitute the perfect TR? Which edition of the TR is the “perfect” one? Erasmus published five editions, Stephanus four, and Beza several more, each with differences. Which one is God’s “kept text”?
The TR itself contains readings that have no manuscript support (e.g., 1 John 5:7’s Comma Johanneum in Erasmus’s third edition). If VPP means God preserved His Word exactly, why does the TR rely on conjectural emendations and late Latin manuscripts?
3. Questions on the King James Version
If the KJV is “perfect,” which revision is "perfect"—the 1611, 1769, or one of the many other updates with thousands of spelling and wording changes?
The KJV translators themselves wrote in their preface “we do not deny that of the translations there are many good ones.” Why do modern KJV-Only advocates claim something the translators themselves never claimed?
The KJV translators explicitly stated in their preface that they did not believe their work was the final word on translation and that future translations would be needed. How do you address this statement from the very men who produced the KJV?
Since the King James Version's New Testament is based on the Textus Receptus, and the translators themselves used marginal notes to show their uncertainty about certain verses, how can you claim it is a perfect, final translation?
The English language has changed significantly since 1611. Given that many words in the KJV have different meanings today, how can it be the only authoritative Bible for modern English speakers? For example, the word "let" in the KJV means "to hinder," not "to allow."
4. Questions on Logic and Consistency
If God perfectly preserved His Word in the KJV (English, 1611), what does that mean for Chinese, Arabic, or Spanish Christians? Do they not have God’s perfect Word unless they learn 17th-century English?
If the KJV is “perfect,” why do KJV-Onlyists still consult lexicons, Strong’s Concordance, or Hebrew/Greek dictionaries? Shouldn’t the perfect English text be self-sufficient?
5. Questions on Faith and Doctrine
Does insisting on one perfect English Bible (or one TR edition) add to the gospel, making salvation dependent on having the “right” version?
The Westminster Confession says God preserved His Word “pure in all ages,” not “perfect in one edition.” Isn’t VPP actually a new doctrine, not what the Reformers taught?